In my last post,
I noted John Adams repeatedly asks a question on why the original
Hebrew of biblical texts had been destroyed. The context was discussing
the (supposed) original Hebrew of the Epistle to the Hebrews.
In his letter to
Thomas Jefferson, dated November 14, 1813, Adams discusses the destruction of Hebrew texts in other larger contexts and answers his "Why" question.
First, let's look at Adams' answer to his question:
Why have those Verses been annihilated? I Suspect
platonick Christianity, pharisaical Judaism, or machiavilian Politicks,
in this case; as in all other cases of the destruction of records and
litterary monuments. The Auri Sacra fames, et dominandi Sæva cupido.
Auri sacra fames, et dominandi sæva cupido is translated as “accursed hunger for gold, and cruel lust for power.”
Here is the passage that immediately preceded the quotation:
Blacklocks translation of Horace’s “Justum”
is admirable;
Superiour to Addisons.
Could David be translated as well; his Superiority would be
universally acknowledged. We cannot compare the Sybbiline Poetry. By
Virgils Pollio we may conjecture, there was Prophecy as well as Sublimity.
Why have those Verses been annihilated?
I previously wrote
about this quotation from Adams' letter to Jefferson when I observed it
demonstrates Adams' openness to the notion that Virgil wrote special
revelation and that if recognized as such, belongs in the biblical
canon. I stand by that assertion. Indeed, Adams' son John Quincy, whom
the elder Adams mentored on theological issues, and at a time in his
life when he was more orthodox (Trinitarian) than his father, likewise
seemed open to the proposition when he wrote:
But whether Homer and Virgil
were not favoured with the same sort of Inspiration I cannot
pronounce—John Milton, undoubtedly believed himself to be inspired—He
too often recurs to his Heavenly Muse, his Urania; to her who “dictated
to him slumbering”—who “nightly brought his verses to his ear”—and he
expressly invokes her as the same
[...]
I am not one who will deny the
claim of John Milton, or that of Homer and Virgil to Inspiration. But
if their claims are good, those of the Apocalypse and of Solomon’s Song,
are unquestionable[.]
In my previous post,
I noted I thought Adams' question "[w]hy have those [v]erses been
annihilated?" related to Virgil. And it's certainly possible it did: 1.
The question immediately follows the clause where Adams speaks on
Virgil; and 2. Adams apparently thought this conspiracy to destroy and
suppress was vast. That is, all sorts of texts could have been subject
to it.
But I now add that Adams' question also relates to
the Psalms of David. Adams notes he is dissatisfied with every single
translation of them he has seen. He said he'd rather see them translated
in "our prose translation." Whatever that means, Adams believes they haven't been.
In fact, all current translations of the Psalms of David were not as well done as "Blacklocks translation of
Horace’s 'Justum'." But the problem is the originals were destroyed by means of conspiracy.
In
this letter Adams then goes on to promote the thesis of a book that
doubts we have the right version of the Ten Commandments. That's when he
gives the quotation that I have often repeated:
When and where originated our
Ten commandments? The Tables and The Ark were lost. Authentic copies, in
few, if any hands; the ten Precepts could not be observed, and were
little remembered.
If the Book of
Deuteronomy was compiled, during or after the Babilonian Captivity, from
Traditions, the Error or amendment might come in there.
Of
course Adams would be sympathetic to the book's thesis and desire to
read it; given his position on how in their lust for gold and power, the
churchy cabal tampered with the originals.
(Now, in
other places Adams intimates he believed in the
Decalogue. But that's because his method wasn't to simply look something
up in the Bible and believe it as true special revelation. But rather,
he believed he held a book that contained special revelation but
had been corrupted by authorities. And it's by using his reason and
conscience, he could do his best to figure out what that special
revelation was.
With this we could understand why Adams could at
once doubt we had the right version of the the Ten Commandments because
of the presence of errors in general contained in the Bible's text. But
then later or in other places affirm the Decalogue as right because he
decided it agrees with his own philosophy and reason.)
Then
in the letter, Adams told Jefferson he supported his "Jefferson Bible"
project and if he were up to it (which he was not) he'd do the same:
I admire your Employment, in Selecting the Philosophy and Divinity of
Jesus and Seperating it from all intermixtures. If I had Eyes and
Nerves, I would go through both Testaments and mark all that I
understand.
Previously, I've noted the above numerous
times. But what I never noted is what follows, which sheds more light on
Adams' conspiracy theory. Many conspiracy theories have a kernel of
truth (it's what goes beyond that kernel that gets problematic).
In this case, Pope Gregory really did have Hebrew books ordered burnt. This is more or less accurate history:
In 1238 a French Jew, made a discovery to the Pope (Gregory 9th)
of the heresies of the Talmud. The Pope Sent 35 Articles of Error, to
the Archbishops of France, requiring them to Seize the books of the
Jews, and burn all that contained any Errors. He wrote in the same terms
to the Kings of France, England Arragon, Castile Leon, Navarre and
Portugal. In consequence of this Order 20 Cartloads of Hebrew Books were
burnt in France: and how many times 20 cartloads were destroyed in the
other Kingdoms? The Talmud of Babylon and that of Jerusalem were
composed from 120 to 500 years after the destruction of Jerusalem.
In
researching this further, I learned that what was objectionable to Pope
Gregory were things written in the Talmud that Christians would find
blasphemous. Not just Catholics, but some of the claims Protestants,
even unitarian Protestants, would strongly object to.
The
Talmud, as far as I understand, is not the Hebrew Old Testament. But
Adams apparently believed that in this conspiracy to destroy -- which by the
way, probably includes more than this one systematic act by Pope Gregory
-- originals from the Hebrew Old Testament (and perhaps some of the New
that were originally written in Hebrew) were included.
Adams goes on:
If Lightfoot derived Light from what escaped from Gregorys fury3 in explaining many passages in the New Testament, by comparing the Expressions of the Mishna, with those of
the Apostles and Evangelists, how many proofs of the Corruptions of Christianity
might We find in the Passages burnt?
John
Lightfoot was a Hebraist, a biblical scholar whose work, according to Adams, shed a limited
amount of light because Gregory's actions couldn't suppress everything.
But, as Adams reasons, if we had the Hebrew that was destroyed by way of
Athanasian conspiracy we would have more proof of Christianity's
corruptions, the chief of which were orthodox Trinitarian doctrine.
In
other writings Adams makes clear that the notion of the Incarnation is
not just the chief corruption of Christianity but is responsible for all
of Christianity's other corruptions. He also seems to intimate that
orthodox Trinitarians, whatever good they can do in their understanding
of the faith, will never be able to understand the faith without errors
until they stop believing in the Trinity and Incarnation.
